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1. Survival rate after cardiac arrest in children averages?

a. 20 to 40%

b. 7 to 11%

c. 50 to 60%

d. 30 to 50%

2. The term "neonates" according to PALS refers to age:

a. Few hours old to 28 days old

b. Birth to 31 days old

c. Birth to 7 days old

d. Up to one year of age

3. A neonate is considered to be experiencing uncompensated shock when the systolic blood pressure is below?

a. 60 mmHg

b. 70 mmHg

c. 80 mmHg

d. 90 mmHg

4. Uncompensated shock is defined as a systolic blood pressure lower than the 5th percentile for the age of the patient.  What is the formula to identify the lower 5th percentile for children ages one to ten?

a. 60 + (2 x age in years)

b. 70 + (2 x age in years)

c. 70 + (4 x age in months)

d. 70 + age in years

5. High flow airway delivery devices (non-rebreather, BVM, mouth-to-mask) should be set no less than how many liters per minute?

a. 12 LPM

b. 15 LPM

c. 20 LPM

d. 10 LPM

6. Oropharyngeal airways are contraindicated in children less than one year of age.

a. True

b. False

7. What is the technique termed to hold a mask to the patients face when using a bag-valve-mask?

a. "U" clamp

b. "C" clamp

c. "N" clamp

d. "O" clamp

8. Using the formula "(age in years divided by 4) + 4)" is used for:

a. Estimating the weight of the patient

b. Estimating the length of the patient in meters

c. Estimating the suction catheter size

d. Estimating the tracheal tube size

9. If a rapid sequence intubation procedure is anticipated, avoid assisted ventilations if possible because it often inflates the stomach and increases the risk of vomiting and aspiration.

a. True

b. False

10. Attempts to ET tube intubate the patient should not exceed:

a. 45 seconds per attempt

b. 60 seconds per attempt

c. 30 seconds per attempt

d. 15 seconds per attempt

11. What formula can be used to estimate the depth of insertion of an endotracheal tube in children?

a. Internal tracheal tube diameter x 3

b. Internal tracheal tube diameter x 2

c. (age in years divided by 2) + 16

d. 1/2 of the child's weight converted to millimeters

12. Rapid sequence intubation is contraindicated on a spontaneously breathing, adequately ventilated patient whose airway maintenance depends on his own upper airway muscle tone and positioning (eg, upper-airway obstruction or epiglottitis).

a. True

b. False

13. The acronym DOPE is used to identify common possibilities for ET tube problems:

a. Displaced tube, Oxygen condensation, Pulmonary edema, Equipment failure

b. Decreased ventilation rate, Open chest wound, Pulmonary edema, Equipment failure

c. Displaced tube, Obstructed tube, Pneumothorax, Equipment failure

d. Distal obstruction, Oversized patient, Pneumothorax, Equipment failure

14. In general the approximate maximum suction force for children and infant is around:

a. 300 mmHg

b. 60 mmHg

c. 200 mmHg

d. 120 mmHg

15. Intraoseous (IO) needle placement often can be achieved in:

a. 4 minutes

b. 2 minutes

c. 1 minute

d. 10 seconds

16. The PALS program has removed the age requirement for IO use.  The old criteria stated it is contraindicated in patients over what age?

a. 6 year old

b. 8 years old

c. 10 years old

d. 12 years old

17. The acronym "LEAN"  are drugs that may be administered via the ET tube in 3-5mL of of total solution.  What are the "LEAN" drugs?

18. The most commonly observed rhythms in the pediatric patient with cardiac arrest are:

a. Asystole and bradycardia

b. Ventricular fibrillation and ventricular tachycardia

19. Epinephrine given via the ET tube should be:

a. 0.01mg/kg of 1:10000

b. 0.1mg/kg of 1:1000

c. 0.1mL/kg of 1:10000

d. 0.01mg/kg of 1:1000

20. Initial doses of narcan, adenosine (initial dose), morphine and valium are:

a. 0.01mg/kg

b. 0.1mg/kg

c. 1mg/kg

d. 0.02mg/kg

21. The minimum single dose of atropine must be at least:

a. 0.1mg

b. 0.01mg

c. 1mg

d. 0.02mg

22. Amiodarone for pulseless ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation is:

a. 150mg

b. 5mg/kg

c. 2mg/kg

d. 100mg

23. Epinephrine is given to patients without a pulse every:

a. 2-5 minutes

b. 3-5 minutes

c. 1-3 minutes

d. 2-4 minutes

24. How many joules are used for the second defibrillation attempt for children in ventricular fibrillation:

a. 2J/kg

b. 1J/kg

c. 4J/kg

d. 200j

25. How far do you compress the sternum of a five year old when compressing the heart during CPR?

a. 1 to 2 inches

b. 1 to 1 1/2 inches or 1/2 to 1/3 the chest thickness

c. 1 1/2 to 2 inches

d. 1/2 to 1 inch

26. All of the following treatments can be considered in a symptomatic bradycardic child except:

a. Epinephrine

b. Cardiac pacing

c. Atropine

d. Lidocaine

27. Clinically significant bradycardia is defined as a heart rate less than ___ beats per minute or a rapidly dropping heart rate despite adequate oxygenation with poor systemic perfusion. (The rate will for sure apply to all pediatric age groups if seen)

a. 80

b. 50

c. 60

d. 100

28. What is the total single maximum dose of atropine that may be administered to a child?

a. .5mg

b. 2mg

c. 1mg

d. 3mg

29. Approximately what percent of reported pediatric cardiac arrest patients experience ventricular fibrillation or pulseless ventricular tachycardia?

a. 10%

b. 30%

c. 40%

d. 2%

30. Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) in infants generally produces a heart rate greater than?

a. 180 beats per minute

b. 150 beats per minute

c. 220 beats per minute

d. 140 beats per minute

31. When determining a narrow or wide QRS complex when interpreting an EKG what measurement is used to determine a normal QRS complex?

a. Equal or less than 0.10 seconds

b. Equal or less than 0.08 seconds

c. Equal or less than 0.12 seconds

d. Equal or less than 0.14 seconds

32. When performing cardioversion electrical therapy the initial shock is:

a. 1J/kg

b. 0.5J/kg

c. 2J/kg

d. 4J/kg

33. Infant paddles are used to deliver electrical therapy to patients less than:

a. 10kg

b. 15kg

c. 20kg

d. 25kg

34. What is the age and weight requirements to place an AED on a patient?

a. 12 years and 95 pounds

b. Age dependant not weight dependant

c. 10 years and 60 pounds

d. 12 years and 55 pounds

35. When delivering fluid to a dehydrated child the amount should be:

a. 40mL/kg

b. 10mL/kg

c. 25mL/kg

d. 20mL/kg

36. Beta blockers are contraindicated in the setting of cocaine intoxication.

a. True

b. False

37. When meconium is observed in amniotic fluid, continue to deliver the head and suction.  If the newly born infant has a heart rate less than 120 beats per minute, carry out direct tracheal suctioning.

a. True

b. False

38. When a newly born infant has a heart rate less than 100 beats per minute but greater than 60 beats per minute start CPR.

a. True

b. False

39. When a newly born has a heart rate of less than 60 start CPR.

a. True

b. False

40. More than 5 million neonatal deaths occur worldwide each year (19% are related to asphyxia). Approximately what percent of the newly born population require some degree of active resuscitation at birth (eg, stimulation to breathe)?

a. 5 to 10 %

b. 20 to 30%

c. 2 to 5 %

d. 50%

41. 12% of deliveries will have meconium staining.

a. True

b. False

42. For neonatal/newly born CPR the compression to ventilation ratio is:

a. 5 to 1

b. 3 to 1

c. 15 to 2

d. 1 to 5

43.  The goal rate of neonatal chest compressions in a minute is:

a. 110 per minute

b. 90 per minute

c. 120 per minute

d. 60 per minute

44. The initial dose of volume expanders in neonatal patients is:

a. 20mL/kg

b. 15mL/kg

c. 5mL/kg

d. 10mL/kg

45. When identifying and treating possible causes of asystole and/or pulseless electrical activity (PEA) the AHA PALS' course uses the 6 "H" & 5 "T" acronym.  In our program we use PATC-H5-MD. What do they stand for?

P

A

T  

C

H

H

H

H

H

M

D

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